Created at 8:35 p.m. Jan, 03, 2026
Author: ice_joker98
Related Note: 1497307420806 1
Rationale for change

I think here the occluded artery is LCX, as we have STE in inferior leads II, III, aVF which corresponds to PDA territory , but also we have STE in V5-V6 which is lateral wall supplied by LCX artery, so assuming it's one-vessel occlusion. It must be LCX as left dominant circulation we would have PDA arising from LCX and then if LCX occluded lateral and inferior walls would be affected, RIGHT?

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